Semantics Do Matter
There are some sentences in the written Word of God that I don't believe were either 1) in the original text or were 2) translated correctly. The reasons I believe this are 1) It's been proven already that there have been errors in translation and 2) some sentences just don't make good spiritual sense.
For example:
In 1 Corinthians, chapter 7, after Paul is explaining about marrying/ not marrying, and then goes on saying that if a woman's husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes in the Lord, but he thinks she'd be happier if she didn't marry, and then he says in vs. 40-"And I think that I also have the Spirit of God," What? He thinks?
I could accept it if Paul said, "I believe that I am saying this by the Spirit of God," but not that he thinks he has the Spirit of God, suggesting he doesn't know if he has it or not. It just makes me want to slap my own face when I read that.
Why does it matter? One simple word-TRUTH! If Paul only thought he had the Spirit of God, and didn't really know it, I would disregard all of the epistles! But, he did know it, and this sentence in the way it is written, with the subsequent meaning, declares the contrary. It shows Paul as not being sure if he has the Holy Spirit!!!
So as I am reading the Word of God and come across one of these sentences with skewed meanings, the Spirit of God, restates it. He "autocorrects" to align it with the truth of God's heart and mind. Call me blasphemous, if you will, but I believe I am saying this by the Spirit of God, which I know is in me. Amen.
For example:
In 1 Corinthians, chapter 7, after Paul is explaining about marrying/ not marrying, and then goes on saying that if a woman's husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes in the Lord, but he thinks she'd be happier if she didn't marry, and then he says in vs. 40-"And I think that I also have the Spirit of God," What? He thinks?
I could accept it if Paul said, "I believe that I am saying this by the Spirit of God," but not that he thinks he has the Spirit of God, suggesting he doesn't know if he has it or not. It just makes me want to slap my own face when I read that.
Why does it matter? One simple word-TRUTH! If Paul only thought he had the Spirit of God, and didn't really know it, I would disregard all of the epistles! But, he did know it, and this sentence in the way it is written, with the subsequent meaning, declares the contrary. It shows Paul as not being sure if he has the Holy Spirit!!!
So as I am reading the Word of God and come across one of these sentences with skewed meanings, the Spirit of God, restates it. He "autocorrects" to align it with the truth of God's heart and mind. Call me blasphemous, if you will, but I believe I am saying this by the Spirit of God, which I know is in me. Amen.
posted by Patti Blount @ 7:55 AM
1 Comments:
At 11/26/2015 7:34 AM ,
Marshall said...
I Corinthians 7:40 has suffered through cultural translation revisions a la this Greek word γνωμην (lit: what you know). KJV (1769) rendered γνωμην here as Paul's "judgment", BEB (1949) as "opinion", amplified/NASB (1965-71) "think". The evolution here reflects a struggle of changing cultural norms regarding what you or I may "know"... is what we know amount to what we think? Does what we know equal our opinion, our judgment or evaluation, or ???
γνωμην makes a few other New Testament appearances, such as...
* Acts 20:3, knowing what we're setting out to do
* I Corinthians 1:10, being of the same mind and in the same "know"
* II Corinthians 8:10, and what I "know" in this
* Philemon 1:14, I resolve to do nothing apart from what you "know"
* Revelation 17:13, these are holding one "know"
* Revelation 17:17, for God gives to their hearts to produce His "know" and to making one "know" and to give the Kingdom to them
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